Ten Commandments, Sabbath or Ceremonial Law?
Hosea 2:11
It grieves me deeply that some are so desperate to prove that the Lord's Sabbath is abolished, that they search for any scripture they can abuse for their argument. This has recently become the case with Hosea 2:11 with a few people. As Satan loves to perpetuate false doctrine, I am revealing the truth on this verse before our adversary gets a chance to spread this heresy as he did with Colossians 2:16.
Note first the similarities in context between Hosea 2:11 and Colossians 2:16 in regards to the mention of feast days, new moons and ceremonial sabbath days.
Hosea 2:11 “I will also cause all her mirth to cease, her feast days, her new moons, and her sabbaths, and all her solemn feasts.”
Colossians 2:16 “Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink [offerings], or in respect of an holyday [feast], or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:”
The reason for the similarities is simply because Hosea 2:11 also refers to the Mosaic Law and its sacrificial system that had meat and drink offerings, feast days, new moons and ceremonial sabbath days.
There is also another very significant fact that proves this. Symbolically, the Bible refers to a Church as a woman as the Church is the bride of Christ. There is much more that could be explained here but I do not think it is necessary to go into further detail to see this. Please read mystery Babylon for more information if required.
Israel was God's Old Testament Church and why you will frequently find God referring to Israel in scripture as a woman and even a harlot when Israel was guilty of idolatry. You will note in Hosea 2:11 the consistent use of the word “HER” as in HER feasts, HER new moons and HER sabbaths etc. “HER” in this case is referring to Israel. These Sabbaths were not God's but belonged to Israel.
These sabbaths such as the Passover sabbath were part of the sacrificial sanctuary system that only Israel had to keep to make reconciliation for sin. Not long after Jesus died on the cross, the Gospel went to the Gentiles, and so they never had to keep them because Jesus replaced this sacrificial law when he became our One and final perfect sacrifice, nailing this law to the cross. This is why they were for Israel only to make reconciliation for sin until Jesus Christ came and fulfilled this sacrificial law. The fourth Commandment on the other hand is the Lord's Sabbath and belonged to Him and was for everyone to keep for all eternity.
So put very simply, God had two very significant laws. The Mosaic Law and the Ten Commandment law. The Mosaic Law was temporary, sacrificial, written on paper, only for the Jews and was nailed to the cross. The Ten Commandments were love, written in stone, eternal and for everyone. If the Lord's Sabbath was temporary and only for Israel, then why didn't God put it in the temporary Mosaic Law with all the other sabbaths that were nailed to the cross? Because it was not temporary! God placed it in His Ten Commandment law that was eternal and for everyone because that is where it belonged! So unless one thinks God is a fool and the author of confusion, (1 Corinthians 14:33) then this alone also reveals the truth.
God makes a very clear distinction between His Sabbath and the ceremonial sabbaths in the Ten Commandments by stating, “But the seventh day is the Sabbath of the LORD your God:” (Exodus 20:10, Deuteronomy 5:14). Note that this is the Lord's Sabbath and never belonged to Israel. It is God's! We find this further demonstrated in scripture by God often calling His Sabbath, “My Sabbaths,” as in His weekly Sabbaths, while calling the ceremonial sabbaths that were only for Israel, “Her Sabbaths.” This very clear distinction has been given in Hosea 2:11 that leaves no uncertainty that the sabbaths referred to are only ceremonial such as Passover and the Day of Atonement etc that were all practised because of sin. This is also seen by the context of Hosea 2:11. Remember that this sacrificial system had feast days, new moons and sabbath days as previously explained. All the following scriptures refer only to the sacrificial sanctuary system.
Hosea 2:11 “I will also cause all her mirth to cease, her feast days, her new moons, and her sabbaths, and all her solemn feasts.”
Ezekiel 45:17 “And it shall be the prince's part to give burnt offerings, and meat offerings, and drink offerings, in the feasts [holyday], and in the new moons, and in the sabbaths, in all solemnities of the house of Israel: he shall prepare the sin offering, and the meat offering, and the burnt offering, and the peace offerings, to make reconciliation for the house of Israel.”
Colossians 2:14-16 “Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; [sin] … 16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink [offerings], or in respect of an holyday [feast], or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:”
Galatians 4:9-10 “But now after you have known God, or rather are known by God, how is it that you turn again to the weak and beggarly elements, to which you desire again to be in bondage? 10 You observe days and months and seasons and years [eg; Passover, Day of Atonement and five others, which are all yearly sabbaths].” Parentheses are added. More can be found on what is the law in Galatians here.
Note that the following two verses refer to the Lord's Sabbath, as in the fourth Commandment that is eternal in nature as are the other nine Commandments.
Exodus 31:13 “Speak you also unto the children of Israel, saying, Verily MY sabbaths you shall keep: for it is a sign between me and you throughout your generations; that you may know that I am the LORD that does sanctify you.”
Ezekiel 20:20 “And hallow MY sabbaths; and they shall be a sign between me and you, that you may know that I am the LORD your God.”
The following two verses refer to Israel's ceremonial sabbaths that were practised because of sin. Remember that such sin would include breaking the fourth Commandment as sin is the breaking of God's law. (1 John 3:4)
Hosea 2:11 “I will also cause all her mirth to cease, her feast days, her new moons, and HER sabbaths, and all her solemn feasts.”
Lamentations 1:7 “Jerusalem remembered in the days of her affliction and of her miseries all her pleasant things that she had in the days of old, when her people fell into the hand of the enemy, and none did help her: the adversaries saw her, and did mock at HER sabbaths.”
Those attempting to prove Hosea 2:11 is saying that the Sabbath of the Lord is going to cease, state the fulfillment was at the cross, and I know of one deceived Catholic who bases this on Matthew 28:1. More on this later.
Reading Hosea chapter 2 reveals that Israel had been guilty of idolatry that God really detests. Hosea 2:1-5 speaks of the idolatry of Israel while Hosea 2:6-13 speaks of God's judgments against them. The time frame here is around 700 B.C. and refers to the capture of the ten Northern tribes of Israel by the Assyrians. These ten tribes were captured, removed, and finally were all scattered.
Also significant is that the word cease in Hosea 2:11 means to stop. It does not mean to abolish. So why did these feast days and ceremonial sabbaths cease? Because Northern Israel did not repent and thus were captured, removed and scattered as God warned. As a result of this, her feast days, her new moons and her sabbaths all ceased for these Northern tribes. These feasts etc did however continue for Southern Israel such as Judah and Jerusalem.
John Wesley's Explanatory Notes on the Whole Bible
“Hosea 2:11 Her feast days - Though apostate, Israel was fallen to idolatry, yet they retained many of the Mosaic rites and ceremonies. Her solemn feasts - The three annual feasts of tabernacles, weeks, and passover, all which ceased when they were carried captive, by Salmaneser.”
So when was the fulfillment of this prophecy, as in when did they cease for Northern Israel? Wesley's Notes on the Bible correctly states it was when they were carried captive by Salmaneser, which was around 722 B.C. This means we are still over 750 years away from the cross. To say Hosea 2:11 refers to the Sabbath of the Lord ceasing is to say that the fourth Commandment ended even before Jesus was born! This is just plain stupidity and those teaching this are clutching at straws.
The Catholic person I mentioned earlier has an axe to grind with the worlds largest Sabbath keeping Church for preaching antichrist truth, and so his use of this verse is a deliberate attempt at proving a lie. I do not think I will ever understand how so called Christians think they can do this and God will smile upon them. There is no doubt of the outcome of deliberate and wilful sin. See Hebrews 10:26-29.
This Catholic has a text only video on You Tube and he challenges anyone to prove him wrong. But I have found that he removes any comment that does prove him wrong! If the comment was not to threatening for him, then he often just accused the person who gave their feedback as being ignorant and that was his only reply. This person erroneously claims that Matthew 28:1 is the so called fulfillment of Hosea 2:11. The problem is that he is over 750 years to late!
This person first sets out to prove that both uses of the word Sabbath in Matthew 28:1 are plural and on that much he is correct. The phrase “first day of the week” in the Greek actually means “first of the Sabbath” which means this is the first day after the Sabbath. This applies to all New Testament verses using the phrase “first day of the week.” See what day is the Sabbath for more detail on this phrase.
His end argument is that Matthew 28:1 says “In the end of the Sabbaths” and that since it is plural, that it is saying it is the end of the Lord's Sabbaths, as in it was abolished. This phrase is just simply saying at the end of this day. Since his argument is already squashed by the time period of fulfilment and that Hosea 2:11 refers to the ceremonial sabbaths only, it is not necessary to go into this further. But there is a very interesting translation issue here that many people fail to see. So here is more detail on this verse that reveals this person wrong three times.
The reason why the word Sabbath should have been translated “Sabbaths” in Matthew 28:1 is because this Sabbath was a High day or High Sabbath.
John 19:31 “The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the Sabbath day, (for that Sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.“
Even though it should be fairly obvious what a high Sabbath is, there are many who disagree to achieve their own means once again so here it is by Commentary. The same is said by every well known and reputable Bible Commentary.
The People's New Testament (1891) by B. W. Johnson quotes:
“John 19:31 - That sabbath was a high day. A double Sabbath, both the weekly Sabbath and a passover Sabbath. It was usual Roman custom to leave crucified bodies on the cross, but out of deference to their wishes Pilate consents that the legs of the victims should be broken in order to hasten death, so that the bodies might be taken down and buried. The legs were crushed with a hammer like a sledge and the shock would bring speedy death.”
So the first thing to note is that the word Sabbath in the Greek is actually Sabbaths because it was both the Seventh day Sabbath of the Lord and the Passover sabbath. Remember that Jesus was the true Lamb of God and became our Passover Lamb and the fulfillment of Passover, and why this ceremonial sabbath did end at the cross! Jesus fulfilled the whole sacrificial system with all its ceremonial sabbath days.
Now for the interesting part. Matthew 28:1 reads, “In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.”
The “end of the Sabbath”, which is sunset and “dawn” are twelve hours apart, so why do we have this apparent contradiction in Matthew 28:1? The answer is found in the translation of this passage. By reorganizing the last verse of Matthew 27 and the first verse of Matthew 28, the apparent ambiguity completely disappears.
Matthew 27:62-66 “Now the next day, that followed the day of the preparation, the chief priests and Pharisees came together unto Pilate, 63 Saying, Sir, we remember that that deceiver said, while he was yet alive, After three days I will rise again. 64 Command therefore that the sepulchre be made sure until the third day, lest his disciples come by night, and steal him away, and say unto the people, He is risen from the dead: so the last error shall be worse than the first. 65 Pilate said unto them, You have a watch: go your way, make it as sure as you can. 66 So they went, and made the sepulchre sure, sealing the stone, and setting a watch. 28:1 In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.”
In Matthew 27:62, a request for a guard on the tomb was made on the Sabbath (the day after the preparation) and that the request was for a guard until the third day. By simply moving the text “in the end of the Sabbath,” from the beginning of Matthew 28:1 to the end of the previous verse in Matthew 27:66, which is where it should have been placed when punctuation and chapters and verses were first added, we would have the following.
Matthew 27:66 “So they went, and made the sepulchre sure, sealing the stone, and setting a watch in the end of the sabbath.”
Matthew 28:1 “As it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.”
It was the watch guarding the tomb that began “in the end of the Sabbath.” Since Jesus was to rise the third day, the Roman guards were put in place immediately at the end of the Sabbaths because they anticipated that the body of Jesus would be stolen by the Jews sometime that night. See also was Jesus crucified on Wednesday.
It is now even more obvious that the phrase “in the end of the Sabbaths” is not referring to the abolishing of the Lord's Sabbath but is just specifying the time when the guard was placed on the tomb. The guard was placed at the end of this High day that was both the Seventh day Sabbath and the Passover sabbath. Others I asked said it was already obvious this verse was just referring to the end of the day but now it is so clear that no one can dispute the obvious.
So Hosea 2:11 refers to Israel's ceremonial sabbaths such as Passover and the Day of Atonement, which were practised because of sin, and the fulfillment of this prophecy was around 722 B.C. and not at the cross. And Matthew 28:1 was nothing more than an attempt at proving a lie. I believe we can confidently state that this argument inspired by Satan is now dead.